2021 Latest 100% Exam Passing Ratio - CISA Dumps PDF
Pass Exam With Full Sureness - CISA Dumps with 440 Questions
NEW QUESTION 26
An IS audit report highlighting inadequate network internal controls is challenged because no serious incident has ever occurred. Which of the following actions performed during the audit would have BEST supported the findings?
- A. Compliance testing
- B. Penetration testing
- C. Vulnerability assessment
- D. Threat risk assessment
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 27
Which of the following should be the FIRST step when conducting an IT risk assessment?
- A. Identify potential threats
- B. Evaluate controls in place
- C. Identify assets to be protected
- D. Assess vulnerabilities
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
NEW QUESTION 28
Key verification is one of the best controls for ensuring that:
- A. Only authorized cryptographic keys are used
- B. Data is entered correctly
- C. Input is authorized
- D. Database indexing is performed properly
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Key verification is one of the best controls for ensuring that data is entered correctly.
NEW QUESTION 29
Which of the following programs would a sound information security policy MOST likely include to handle suspected intrusions?
- A. Detection
- B. Response
- C. Monitoring
- D. Correction
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A sound IS security policy will most likely outline a response program to handle suspected intrusions.
Correction, detection and monitoring programs are all aspects of information security, but will not likely be included in an IS security policy statement.
NEW QUESTION 30
Which of the following may be adversely affected when thin client architecture is introduced?
- A. Concurrency
- B. Portability
- C. Availability
- D. Multi-tenancy
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 31
When creating a new risk management program, it is CRITICAL to consider
- A. resource utilization
- B. compliance measures.
- C. the risk appetite.
- D. risk mitigation techniques.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 32
An IS auditor was hired to review e-business security. The IS auditor's first task was to examine each existing e-business application looking for vulnerabilities. What would be the next task?
- A. Examine e-business application in development
- B. Report the risks to the CIO and CEO immediately
- C. Identify threats and likelihood of occurrence
- D. Check the budget available for risk management
Answer: C
Explanation:
An IS auditor must identify the assets, look for vulnerabilities, and then identify the threats and the likelihood of occurrence. Choices A, B and D should be discussed with the CIO, and a report should be delivered to the CEO. The report should include the findings along with priorities and costs.
NEW QUESTION 33
When reviewing the procedures for the disposal of computers, which of the following
should be the GREATEST concern for the IS auditor?
- A. Hard disks are overwritten several times at the sector level, but are not reformatted before leaving the organization.
- B. The transport of hard disks is escorted by internal security staff to a nearby metal recycling company, where the hard disks are registered and then shredded.
- C. Hard disks are rendered unreadable by hole-punching through the platters at specific positions before leaving the organization.
- D. All files and folders on hard disks are separately deleted, and the hard disks are formatted before leaving the organization.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Deleting and formatting does not completely erase the data but only marks the sectors that contained files as being free. There are tools available over the Internet which allow one to reconstruct most of a hard disk's contents. Overwriting a hard disk at the sector level would completely erase data, directories, indices and master file tables. Reformatting is not necessary since all contents are destroyed. Overwriting several times makes useless some forensic measures which are able to reconstruct former contents of newly overwritten sectors by analyzing special magnetic features of the platter's surface. While hole-punching does not delete file contents, the hard disk cannot be used anymore, especially when head parking zones and track zero information are impacted. Reconstructing data would be extremely expensive since all analysis must be performed under a clean room atmosphere and is only possible within a short time frame or until the surface is corroded. Data reconstruction fromshredded hard disks is virtually impossible, especially when the scrap is mixed with other metal parts. If the transport can be secured and the destruction be proved as described in the option, this is a valid method of disposal.
NEW QUESTION 34
To create a digital signature in a message using asymmetric encryption, it is necessary to:
- A. encrypt the authentication sequence using a public key.
- B. encrypt the authentication sequence using a private key.
- C. transmit the actual digital signature in unencrypted clear text.
- D. First use a symmetric algorithm for the authentication sequence.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 35
Which of the following should an IS auditor review to determine user permissions that have been granted
for a particular resource?
- A. Systems logs
- B. Error logs
- C. Application logs
- D. Access control lists (ACL)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
IS auditors should review access-control lists (ACL) to determine user permissions that have been granted
for a particular resource.
NEW QUESTION 36
An IS auditor who has discovered unauthorized transactions during a review of EDI transactions is likely to
recommend improving the:
- A. authentication techniques for sending and receiving messages.
- B. EDI trading partner agreements.
- C. program change control procedures.
- D. physical controls for terminals.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Authentication techniques for sending and receiving messages play a key role in minimizing exposure to
unauthorized transactions. The EDI trading partner agreements would minimize exposure to legal issues.
NEW QUESTION 37
To install backdoors, hackers generally prefer to use:
- A. either eavedropper or computer worm.
- B. either Tripwire or computer virus.
- C. either Trojan horse or eavedropper.
- D. either Trojan horse or computer worm.
- E. None of the choices.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A backdoor is a method of bypassing normal authentication procedures.
Many computer manufacturers used to preinstall backdoors on their systems to provide technical support for customers. Hackers typically use backdoors to secure remote access to a computer, while attempting to remain hidden from casual inspection. To install backdoors, hackers prefer to use either Trojan horse or computer worm.
NEW QUESTION 38
Which of the following should be included in emergency change control procedures?
- A. Obtain user management approval before implementing the changes.
- B. Update production source libraries to reflect changes.
- C. Use an emergency ID to move production programs into development.
- D. Request that the help desk make the changes.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 39
While evaluating software development practices in an organization, an IS auditor notes that the quality assurance (QA) function reports to project management. The MOST important concern for an IS auditor is the:
- A. effectiveness of the QA function because it should interact between project management and user management
- B. efficiency of the QA function because it should interact with the project implementation team.
- C. effectiveness of the project manager because the project manager should interact with the QA function.
- D. efficiency of the project manager because the QA function will need to communicate with the project implementation team.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To be effective the quality assurance (QA) function should be independent of project management. The QA function should never interact with the project implementation team since this can impact effectiveness.
The project manager does not interact with the QA function, which should not impact the effectiveness of the project manager. The QA function does not interact with the project implementation team, which should not impact the efficiency of the project manager.
NEW QUESTION 40
In a cloud technology environment, which of the following would pose the GREATEST challenge to the
investigation of security incidents?
- A. Access to the hardware
- B. Non-standard event logs
- C. Data encryption
- D. Compressed customer data
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Information System Acquisition, Development and Implementation
NEW QUESTION 41
An effective implementation of security roles and responsibilities is BEST evidenced across an enterprise when:
- A. policies are signed off by users.
- B. policies are rolled out and disseminated
- C. reviews and updates of policies are regularly performed
- D. operational activities are aligned with policies.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 42
Which of the following Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability (CIA) attribute supports the principle of least privilege by providing access to information only to authorized and intended users?
- A. Integrity
- B. Confidentiality
- C. Availability
- D. Accuracy
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Confidentiality supports the principle of "least privilege" by providing that only authorized individuals, processes, or systems should have access to information on a need-to-know basis.
The level of access that an authorized individual should have is at the level necessary for them to do their job. In recent years, much press has been dedicated to the privacy of information and the need to protect it from individuals, who may be able to commit crimes by viewing the information.
Identity theft is the act of assuming one's identity through knowledge of confidential information obtained from various sources.
An important measure to ensure confidentiality of information is data classification. This helps to determine who should have access to the information (public, internal use only, or confidential). Identification, authentication, and authorization through access controls are practices that support maintaining the confidentiality of information.
A sample control for protecting confidentiality is to encrypt information. Encryption of information limits the usability of the information in the event it is accessible to an unauthorized person.
For your exam you should know the information below:
Integrity
Integrity is the principle that information should be protected from intentional, unauthorized, or accidental changes.
Information stored in files, databases, systems, and networks must be relied upon to accurately process transactions and provide accurate information for business decision making. Controls are put in place to ensure that information is modified through accepted practices.
Sample controls include management controls such as segregation of duties, approval checkpoints in the systems development life cycle, and implementation of testing practices that assist in providing information integrity. Well-formed transactions and security of the update programs provide consistent methods of applying changes to systems. Limiting update access to those individuals with a need to access limits the exposure to intentional and unintentional modification.
Availability
Availability is the principle that ensures that information is available and accessible to users when needed.
The two primary areas affecting the availability of systems are:
1. Denial-of-Service attacks and
2. Loss of service due to a disaster, which could be man-made (e.g., poor capacity planning resulting in system crash, outdated hardware, and poor testing resulting in system crash after upgrade) or natural (e.g., earthquake, tornado, blackout, hurricane, fire, and flood).
In either case, the end user does not have access to information needed to conduct business. The criticality of the system to the user and its importance to the survival of the organization will determine how significant the impact of the extended downtime becomes. The lack of appropriate security controls can increase the risk of viruses, destruction of data, external penetrations, or denial-of-service (DOS) attacks.
Such events can prevent the system from being used by normal users.
CIA
The following answers are incorrect:
Integrity- Integrity is the principle that information should be protected from intentional, unauthorized, or accidental changes.
Availability - Availability is the principle that ensures that information is available and accessible to users when needed.
Accuracy - Accuracy is not a valid CIA attribute.
Following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 314
Official ISC2 guide to CISSP CBK 3rd Edition Page number350
NEW QUESTION 43
Which of the following is the INCORRECT "layer - protocol" mapping within the TCP/IP model?
- A. Application layer - NFS
- B. Network layer - UDP
- C. LAN or WAN interface layer - point-to-point protocol
- D. Transport layer - TCP
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The word INCORRECT is the keyword used in the question.
You need to find out invalid layer-protocol mapping.
The UDP protocol works at Transport layer of a TCP/IP model.
For your exam you should know below information about TCP/IP model:
Network Models
Layer 4. Application Layer
Application layer is the top most layer of four layer TCP/IP model. Application layer is present on the top of the Transport layer. Application layer defines TCP/IP application protocols and how host programs interface with Transport layer services to use the network.
Application layer includes all the higher-level protocols like DNS (Domain Naming System), HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), Telnet, SSH, FTP (File Transfer Protocol), TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol), SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) , DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol), X Windows, RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) etc.
Layer 3. Transport Layer
Transport Layer is the third layer of the four layer TCP/IP model. The position of the Transport layer is between Application layer and Internet layer. The purpose of Transport layer is to permit devices on the source and destination hosts to carry on a conversation. Transport layer defines the level of service and status of the connection used when transporting data.
The main protocols included at Transport layer are TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and UDP (User Datagram Protocol).
Layer 2. Internet Layer
Internet Layer is the second layer of the four layer TCP/IP model. The position of Internet layer is between Network Access Layer and Transport layer. Internet layer pack data into data packets known as IP datagram's, which contain source and destination address (logical address or IP address) information that is used to forward the datagram's between hosts and across networks. The Internet layer is also responsible for routing of IP datagram's.
Packet switching network depends upon a connectionless internetwork layer. This layer is known as Internet layer. Its job is to allow hosts to insert packets into any network and have them to deliver independently to the destination. At the destination side data packets may appear in a different order than they were sent. It is the job of the higher layers to rearrange them in order to deliver them to proper network applications operating at the Application layer.
The main protocols included at Internet layer are IP (Internet Protocol), ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol), ARP (Address Resolution Protocol), RARP (Reverse Address Resolution Protocol) and IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol).
Layer 1. Network Access Layer
Network Access Layer is the first layer of the four layer TCP/IP model. Network Access Layer defines details of how data is physically sent through the network, including how bits are electrically or optically signaled by hardware devices that interface directly with a network medium, such as coaxial cable, optical fiber, or twisted pair copper wire.
The protocols included in Network Access Layer are Ethernet, Token Ring, FDDI, X.25, Frame Relay etc.
The most popular LAN architecture among those listed above is Ethernet. Ethernet uses an Access Method called CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection) to access the media, when Ethernet operates in a shared media. An Access Method determines how a host will place data on the medium.
IN CSMA/CD Access Method, every host has equal access to the medium and can place data on the wire when the wire is free from network traffic. When a host wants to place data on the wire, it will check the wire to find whether another host is already using the medium. If there is traffic already in the medium, the host will wait and if there is no traffic, it will place the data in the medium. But, if two systems place data on the medium at the same instance, they will collide with each other, destroying the data. If the data is destroyed during transmission, the data will need to be retransmitted. After collision, each host will wait for a small interval of time and again the data will be retransmitted.
Protocol Data Unit (PDU) :
Protocol Data Unit - PDU
The following answers are incorrect:
The other options correctly describe layer-protocol mapping in TCP/IP protocol.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 page number 272
NEW QUESTION 44
An IS auditor should expect the responsibility for authorizing access rights to production data and systems to be entrusted to the:
- A. process owners.
- B. security administrator.
- C. system administrators.
- D. data owners.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Data owners are primarily responsible for safeguarding the data and authorizing access to production data on a need-to-know basis.
NEW QUESTION 45
IS management has recently disabled certain referential integrity controls in the database management system (DBMS) software to provide users increased query performance Which of the following controls win MOST effectively compensate for the lack of referential integrity?
- A. Periodic table link checks
- B. Concurrent access controls
- C. More frequent data backups
- D. Performance monitoring tools
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 46
Which of the following is the PRIMARY safeguard for securing software and data within an information processing facility?
- A. Security awareness
- B. Logical access controls
- C. Security committee
- D. Reading the security policy
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To retain a competitive advantage and meet basic business requirements, organizations must ensure that the integrity of the information stored on their computer systems preserve the confidentiality of sensitive data and ensure the continued availability of their information systems. To meet these goals, logical access controls must be in place. Awareness (choice A) itself does not protect against unauthorized access or disclosure of information. Knowledge of an information systems security policy (choice B), which should be known by the organization's employees, would help to protect information, but would not prevent the unauthorized access of information. A security committee (choice C) is key to the protection of information assets, but would address security issues within a broader perspective.
NEW QUESTION 47
Which of the following should be done FIRST when handling multiple confirmed incidents raised at the same time?
- A. Update the business impact assessment.
- B. Activate the business continuity plan.
- C. Inform senior management.
- D. Categorize incidents by the value of the affected asset.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Information System Operations, Maintenance and Support
NEW QUESTION 48
You should keep all computer rooms at reasonable temperatures, which is in between:
(Choose all that apply.)
- A. 30 - 45 degrees Fahrenheit
- B. 10 - 25 degrees Celsius
- C. 60 - 75 degrees Fahrenheit
- D. 20 - 35 degrees Fahrenheit
- E. 0 - 5 degrees Celsius
- F. 1 - 15 degrees Celsius
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
You should keep all computer rooms at reasonable temperatures, which is in between 60 - 75 degrees Fahrenheit or 10 - 25 degrees Celsius. You should also keep humidity levels at 20 - 70 percent.
NEW QUESTION 49
......
ISACA CISA Exam Certification Details:
| Exam Name | ISACA Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA) |
| Number of Questions | 150 |
| Passing Score | 450/800 |
| Books / Training | Virtual Instructor-Led Training In-Person Training & Conferences Customized, On-Site Corporate Training CISA Planning Guide |
| Schedule Exam | Exam Registration |
| Duration | 240 mins |
| Exam PriceISACA Member | $575(USD) |
Certification Path
The Certified Information Systems Auditor Certification includes only one CISA exams.
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